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Re: Brake design question - Ray? Anyone?
Viperkiller <nothing@nothing.net> wrote:
[color=blue]
>On Tue, 30 May 2006 16:39:23 -0700, "Jeff Strickland"
><crwlr@yahoo.com> wrote:
>[color=green]
>>Braking force on any system is distributed about 60/40 front to rear. This
>>explains why one goes through front brakes at a roughly 2:1 ratio over the
>>back brakes.
>>
>>[/color]
>It is more like 70-75%. This is true for most of the vehicles on the
>road. The only exceptions are rear and mid-engines. Since these
>vehicles are mostly high-performance cars (MR2, 911, NSX, 348's), they
>have stiff suspensions that reduce weight transfer to the front.
>These cars obviously use more of the rear brakes.[/color]
I don't understand why the 'stiffness of the suspension' would
have anything to do with 'braking distribution'...isn't that
governed by the 'arm' of the lever effect? (how far above the
axles the vehicle's sprung weight is)...seems to me that the
60/40 that I see here feels about right for any average sized
automobile...no?.
--
-Gord.
(use gordon in email)
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